Hi
In the this expression: 'mes aisselles, que je trouve bizarrement immenses, émettent une fragrance des plus rances', why is des plus rances expressed as plural. I would have thought that the object it relates to is 'une fragrance' and not 'mes aisselles'. I'm guessing that it is plural because it relates to 'mes aisselles', but I would have thought that 'une fragrance' is a closer object.
Thanks
Megan
Literally, "des plus X" means "among the most X [things]". So it does makes sense for it to be plural, even though "fragrance" is singular.
However, according to Grévisse, the adjective can be either singular or plural, depending on whether it's considered as meaning "among the most" or just "very". (You use "des" in both cases, though.)
A fuller explanation is given here: https://tinyurl.com/y22wnzay
Don't have an account yet? Join today
Test your French to the CEFR standard
Find your French level